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Well, as I don't appear to have any takers at the moment, the next book I intend to review (unless someone else wants to) will be Jean Wyatt's thought provoking title, 'The Judge is the Savior'.

Palestine was previously owned by the Philistines, from where the word ‘Palestine’ comes. God did not promise the land of the Philistines to Abram’s descendants  (Genesis 15:18-20), however, and both Abraham and Isaac had cordial arrangements with the King of the Philistines (Genesis 20 and 26).

During the Exodus, God steered His people away from Philistia (Exodus 23:17), but Numbers 34:1-12 and Joshua 15:1-47 tell us that their land was eventually allotted by God to the Israelites. However, this agreement was rescinded before long, because the chosen people did not keep God’s commandments (Judges 2:20 - 3:4). As a result, Gaza was only overcome for a brief period during the reign of Hezekiah (2 Kings 18:8).

When the Babylonians and Greeks came to power, the Philistines suffered defeats and destructions along with Israel (Zephaniah 2:4 and Zechariah 9:5,6), but these passages do not say the defeats would last for ever or that their land would belong to Israel. Following the Babylonian exile, for example, we know that God refreshed His settlement plan for the Israelites (Ezekiel 47:13-20), but we also know that there were resettlements of Philistia during this Persian period.

The key questions for today are whether the allotment of land in the Ezekiel passage was (a) unconditional and/or (b) applies for all time.  There is nothing in the passage that says that either of these things is true.

It is clear from passages such as Judges 2:20 - 3:4 that God’s gift of the territories in what became the Promised Land was not unconditional, so it is hard to see how it could necessarily last for ever.

Some may argue that Genesis 17:8-10 tells us the covenant gave Abraham and his descendants an ‘everlasting possession’ (verse 8). However, as universalists we know that this Hebrew word frequently does not mean literally ‘for ever’. Moreover, the covenant of circumcision is also said to be ‘everlasting’ (verse 13), but  circumcision no longer applies (Galatians 5:2).  Consequently, as 'there is now neither Jew nor Greek' in the eyes of God (Galatians 3:28), the covenant of land to the Jews must no longer apply either.

This should not be confused with God’s promise of salvation to the Jews. This was neither conditional nor temporary. As Paul explains, 'the gifts and call of God are irrevocable' (Romans 11:29). And, as all men will be saved, it follows that ‘all Israel will be saved’ as well (Romans 11:26).

When Jesus said that the tax collectors and prostitutes would enter the kingdom of heaven ‘before’ the chief priests and elders, He was clearly telling us that they would enter the kingdom of heaven eventually. It’s just that many of the first will be last and many of the last will be first (Matthew 19:30). Alleluia!     

I believe God decrees that it should happen, but it’s clear from Jesus’s teaching that He takes no pleasure in social injustice.

The early Christians lived in a commune, sharing everything and giving according to their ability and taking according to their need.

It’s hard to see how that model could be imposed on everyone, but it is clearly much better than models that encourage self-seeking and reward greed.

Could you share a few and perhaps include some links?